$\"\"$

Statement : If the inverse function of $\"\"$ exists, then the $\"\"$ - intercept of $\"\"$ is an $\"\"$ - intercept of $\"\"$ .

The statement is true.

Because, if $\"\"$ is a point on the inverse function, then a is $\"\"$ - intercept of the inverse function, which is the same as the $\"\"$ - intercept of $\"\"$ .

$\"\"$

True.